Turretin first explains why he is addressing this question (and why we should as well). Justification is what Martin Luther described “the article of a standing and falling church.” It is a principle element of Christian doctrine and thus if it is corrupted, other doctrines which flow from it will also be perverted. Secondly, he describes the two sides of the argument (between the Reformers and the Romanists). The Romanists would hold that justification is both forensic (legal) and moral, whereas the Reformers would say that justification deals strictly with a legal system.What is meant by these two terms? If justification is used in the forensic/legal sense, then it means that the sinner is counted just in the court of God. If justification is used in the moral sense, it means that the sinner is “infused with righteousness.” In modern day discussion, the terms are usually “imputation” (forensic) versus “impartation” (moral).
Posted by Kendrick 
